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CIMA F3 Financial Strategy Sample Questions (Q322-Q327):
NEW QUESTION # 322
Company AD is planning to acquire Company DC. It is evaluating two methods of structuring the terms of the bid, which will be ether a debt-funded cash offer or a share exchange The following Information is relevant
* The two companies are of similar size and in related industries
* AB's gearing ratio measured as debt to debt plus equity, is currently 30% based on market values. This Is the company's optimum capital structure set to reflect the risk appetite of shareholders.
* The combined company is expected to generate savings and synergies
Which THREE of the following are advantages to AB's shareholders of a debt-funded cash offer compared with a share exchange?
- A. EPS Mil Increase
- B. Shareholder control will remain with AB's current shareholders
- C. WACC will increase f credit worthless falls too low, further increasing the returns to shareholders.
- D. Gearing will increase.
- E. More of the synergistic benefits of the acquisition will accrue to AB's current shareholders.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 323
Company B is an all equity financed company with a cost of equity of 10%.
It is considering issuing bonds in order to achieve a gearing level of 20% debt and 80% equity.
These bonds will pay a coupon rate of 5% and have an interest yield of 6%.
Company B pays corporate tax at the rate of 25%.
According to Modigliani and Miller's theory of capital structure with tax, what will be Company B's new cost of equity?
- A.

- B.

- C.

- D.

Answer: A
Explanation:
BHere's why:Current (ungeared) cost of equity, ku=10%k_u = 10%ku=10%Target gearing: 20% debt, 80% equity #DE=2080=0.25rac{D}{E} = rac{20}{80} = 0.25ED=8020=0.25 Corporate tax rate, T=25%#(1#T)
=0.75T = 25% Rightarrow (1 - T) = 0.75T=25%#(1#T)=0.75Relevant cost of debt is the interest yield, 6% (not the 5% coupon), so kd=6%k_d = 6%kd=6%Under Modigliani & Miller with tax, the cost of equity for a geared firm is:ke=ku+(ku#kd)(1#T)DEk_e = k_u + (k_u - k_d)(1 - T)rac{D}{E}ke=ku+(ku#kd)(1#T)ED Substitute the numbers:ke=10%+(10%#6%)×0.75×0.25k_e = 10% + (10% - 6%) imes 0.75 imes 0.25 ke=10%+(10%#6%)×0.75×0.25 ke=10%+4%×0.1875k_e = 10% + 4% imes 0.1875ke=10%+4%×0.1875
4%×0.1875=0.75%4% imes 0.1875 = 0.75%4%×0.1875=0.75% ke=10%+0.75%=10.75%k_e = 10% +
0.75% = 10.75%ke=10%+0.75%=10.75% That matches the expression in Option B:10.75%=10%+[(10%
#6%)×(15/80)]10.75% = 10% + [(10% - 6%) imes (15/80)]10.75%=10%+[(10%#6%)×(15/80)] (Since 15
/80=0.1875=(1#T)×D/E15/80 = 0.1875 = (1-T) imes D/E15/80=0.1875=(1#T)×D/E)#
NEW QUESTION # 324
VVV has a floating rate loan that it wishes to replace with a fixed rate. The cost of the existing loan is the risk- free rate + 3%. VW would have to pay a fixed rate of 7% on a fixed rate loan VVVs bank has found a potential counterparty for a swap arrangement.
The counterparty wishes to raise a variable rate loan It would pay the risk-free rate +1 % on a variable rate loan and 8% on a fixed rate.
The bank will require 10% of the savings from the swap and WV and the counterparty will share the remaining saving equally.
Calculate VWs effective rate of interest from this swap arrangement.
- A. VVV would pay 5.2%
- B. VVV would pay 5.65%
- C. VVV would pay 5.5%
- D. VVV would pay the risk-free rate + 1 %
Answer: B
Explanation:
Differences in borrowing costs:
VVV:
Floating: rf + 3%
Fixed: 7%
Counterparty:
Floating: rf + 1%
Fixed: 8%
Relative advantages:
Counterparty is 2% cheaper in floating (rf+1 vs rf+3).
VVV is 1% cheaper in fixed (7 vs 8).
Many CIMA questions treat total potential saving from the swap as the sum of these advantages:
2% + 1% = 3% total savings.
Bank takes 10% # 0.3%.
Remaining savings = 3% # 0.3% = 2.7%, shared equally # 1.35% each.
VVV wants fixed; its direct fixed borrowing cost is 7%, so its effective fixed rate after sharing the savings:
7% # 1.35% = 5.65%.
NEW QUESTION # 325
Which THREE of the following are the most likely exit routes that apply to a venture capitalist?
- A. Raising long term debt from the company
- B. Liquidation of the company
- C. Trade sale to another company
- D. Selling back to the original owners
- E. Flotation via a stock market listing
Answer: C,D,E
Explanation:
Most likely VC exit routes are:
A). Flotation via a stock market listing (IPO) - classic VC exit.
B). Trade sale to another company - very common exit to a strategic buyer.
C). Selling back to the original owners / management (MBO/MBI) - another recognised route.
Liquidation (D) is a last-resort failure outcome, not a likely planned exit, and (E) raising long-term debt is not an exit at all.
NEW QUESTION # 326
Which THREE of the following would be most important if a hospital wishes to review the effectiveness of its services?
- A. The proportion of surgical procedures that are deemed to be successful.
- B. Staff costs compared to previous years.
- C. Average waiting times for treatment.
- D. Revenue generated from car park charges.
- E. Patient satisfaction ratings.
Answer: A,C,E
Explanation:
For reviewing the effectiveness of hospital services, the focus is on quality of care and outcomes:
A). Proportion of surgical procedures successful - direct clinical effectiveness measure #
B). Average waiting times for treatment - key access and service delivery metric #
C). Patient satisfaction ratings - captures perceived quality and experience # Options D (staff costs) and E (car park revenue) are financial/operational efficiency measures, not direct indicators of service effectiveness, so they are less relevant here.
NEW QUESTION # 327
......
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